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PRMIA 8011 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Classic Credit Products and Lifecycle | - Traditional credit products
|
| CVA and DVA | - Credit valuation adjustment
|
| Classic Credit Risk Methodology | - Risk management practices
|
| Counterparty Risk | - Counterparty exposure
|
| Credit Derivatives and Securitization | - Credit derivatives
|
| Modern Credit Risk Modeling | - Portfolio risk models
|
| Management of CVA and DVA | - Operational implementation
|
| Standardized Approach for Counterparty Credit Risk | - SA-CCR framework
|
| Credit Portfolio Management | - Portfolio monitoring
|
PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Sample Questions:
For a corporate bond, which of the following statements is true:
I. The credit spread is equal to the default rate times the recovery rate II. The spread widens when the ratings of the corporate experience an upgrade III. Both recovery rates and probabilities of default are related to the business cycle and move in opposite directions to each other IV. Corporate bond spreads are affected by both the risk of default and the liquidity of the particular issue
- A. III only
- B. IV only
- C. I, II and IV
- D. III and IV
Correct Answer: D 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for Test4Engine members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
Which of the following correctly describes a reverse stress test:
- A. Stress tests that are prescribed and conducted by a regulator in addition to the tests done by a bank
- B. Stress tests that start from a known stress test outcome and then ask what events could lead to such an outcome for the bank
- C. A stress test that considers only qualitative factors that go beyond mathematical modeling to examine feedback loops and the effect of macro-economic fundamentals
- D. A stress test that requires a role reversal between risk managers and the risk taking business units in order to determine credible scenarios
Correct Answer: B 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for Test4Engine members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
The difference between true severity and the best approximation of the true severity is called:
- A. Estimation error
- B. Fitting error
- C. Approximation error
- D. Total error
Correct Answer: C 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for Test4Engine members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
Under the basic indicator approach to determining operational risk capital, operational risk capital is equal to:
- A. 25% of the average gross income (considering only the positive years) of the past three years
- B. 15% of the average gross income (considering only the positive years) of the past three years
- C. 15% of the average net income (considering only the positive years) of the past three years
- D. 15% of the average gross income of the past five years
Correct Answer: B 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for Test4Engine members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
An equity manager holds a portfolio valued at $10m which has a beta of 1.1. He believes the market may see a dip in the coming weeks and wishes to eliminate his market exposure temporarily. Market index futures are available and the current futures notional on these is $50,000 per contract. Which of the following represents the best strategy for the manager to hedge his risk according to his views?
- A. Sell 200 futures contracts
- B. Buy 220 futures contracts
- C. Liquidate his portfolio as soon as possible
- D. Sell 220 futures contracts
Correct Answer: D 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for Test4Engine members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
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