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NEW QUESTION # 35
(An administrator deploys an EC2 instance with the public IP address 54.18.127.233 into a newly created VPC in us-west-2. The EC2 instance must be accessible via ec2-public-54.18.127.233.us-west-2.compute.
amazonaws.com from the internet. Which solution should be used?)
- A. Set the VPC attribute enableDnsSupport to false
- B. Assign a resource-based name to the EC2 instance
- C. Assign a resource tag to the EC2 instance
- D. Set the VPC attribute enableDnsHostnames to true
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To make the EC2 instance accessible via a public DNS hostname like ec2-public-54.18.127.233.us-west-2.
compute.amazonaws.com, the administrator must set the VPC attribute enableDnsHostnames to true. This enables the automatic assignment of public DNS hostnames to instances with public IP addresses in the VPC.
The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, VPC Configuration) states, "Setting enableDnsHostnames to true in the VPC configuration ensures that EC2 instances with public IPs receive a public DNS hostname (e.g., ec2-public-<ip>.<region>.compute.amazonaws.com), facilitating internet accessibility." Resource tags, disabling DNS support, and resource-based names do not enable this functionality.</region></ip>
NEW QUESTION # 36
(An organization uses CloudFormation to deploy AWS infrastructure. The templates are built in JSON and deploy EC2 instances across multiple regions. Which solution should be used to set values in the template based on region-specific AMI IDs?)
- A. Resources
- B. WaitCondition
- C. Mappings
- D. Outputs
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The Mappings section in a CloudFormation template should be used to set values based on region-specific AMI IDs. Mappings allow the template to define a lookup table that associates regions with corresponding AMI IDs, enabling dynamic selection during stack creation across multiple regions. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.3, CloudFormation Mappings) states, "The Mappings section enables region-specific configurations, such as mapping AMI IDs to regions (e.g., 'us-east-1': 'ami-
123456'), ensuring the correct AMI is used based on the deployment region." Outputs, WaitCondition, and Resources do not provide this mapping functionality.
NEW QUESTION # 37
(What is the advantage of maximizing the time to live of the cache in CloudFront?)
- A. Facilitate a high number of requests
- B. Improve a disaster recovery plan
- C. Minimize requests to the origin
- D. Improve security measures
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Maximizing the time to live (TTL) of the cache in Amazon CloudFront reduces the frequency of requests to the origin server by serving content from edge locations for a longer period, lowering latency and costs. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.4, CloudFront Caching) states, "A higher TTL in CloudFront caching minimizes origin requests by keeping objects in edge caches longer, reducing load on the origin server and optimizing performance and cost." Facilitating high request volumes, improving disaster recovery, and enhancing security are not primary benefits of maximizing TTL.
NEW QUESTION # 38
(Which two languages are used by CloudFormation to define infrastructure? Choose 2 answers.)
- A. JSON
- B. C#
- C. YAML
- D. XML
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
AWS CloudFormation uses YAML and JSON languages to define infrastructure as code (IaC) templates, specifying resources, parameters, and configurations. These formats are human-readable and support the creation of stacks for provisioning AWS resources. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.3, CloudFormation) states, "CloudFormation templates can be written in YAML or JSON, both of which are supported for defining infrastructure resources like EC2 instances and S3 buckets." XML and C# are not supported languages for CloudFormation templates.
NEW QUESTION # 39
(An administrator sets up a route table with the default outbound route via an internet gateway and links it to a VPC. Which solution should be used to ensure the route takes effect?)
- A. Create an edge association
- B. Configure propagation
- C. Create a subnet association
- D. Configure tags
Answer: C
Explanation:
To ensure the route table with a default outbound route via an internet gateway takes effect, the administrator must create a subnet association, linking the route table to specific subnets within the VPC. This association applies the routing rules to the subnet's traffic. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, VPC Routing) states, "A route table must be associated with a subnet (subnet association) to enforce routing rules, such as the default route to an internet gateway, ensuring outbound traffic follows the defined path." Propagation, tags, and edge associations do not activate the route.
NEW QUESTION # 40
(Which solution sends DNS queries to separate AWS compute instances?)
- A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
- B. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
- C. Amazon Route 53
- D. Amazon CloudWatch
Answer: C
Explanation:
Amazon Route 53 is the AWS solution that sends DNS queries to separate AWS compute instances by leveraging routing policies to distribute traffic across multiple resources. It acts as a scalable Domain Name System (DNS) service, directing queries to healthy instances based on configurations like latency or weighted routing. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.1, Route 53) states, "Route 53 uses DNS to route end-user requests to multiple AWS compute instances, supporting features like health checks and traffic distribution." Elastic Beanstalk, CloudWatch, and EC2 Auto Scaling do not perform DNS query routing.
NEW QUESTION # 41
(What is a patch baseline attached to if it is not defined in Patch Manager?)
- A. Patch process
- B. Accelerate patch baseline
- C. Default patch group
- D. Baseline data set
Answer: C
Explanation:
If a patch baseline is not explicitly defined in Patch Manager, it is attached to the default patch group. This default group applies a preconfigured baseline with AWS-recommended patches, ensuring basic compliance for instances without custom baselines. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section
5.2, Patch Manager) states, "If no custom patch baseline is defined, instances are associated with the default patch group, which uses AWS-provided baseline settings for automatic patch approval." Options A, C, and D are not valid attachments for patch baselines.
NEW QUESTION # 42
(Media files are stored in an S3 bucket in region A. Demand for the files from region B has increased. Region B is suffering from some latency issues due to geographical location. Which type of replication will reduce the latency in region B?)
- A. S3 Batch
- B. Cross-Region
- C. Same-Region
- D. S3 Versioning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To reduce latency in region B due to increased demand for media files stored in region A, cross-region replication (CRR) should be used. CRR replicates objects to an S3 bucket in another region (e.g., region B), allowing users to access files from a closer location, thus minimizing latency. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 2.2, S3 Replication) states, "Cross-Region Replication in S3 copies objects to a destination bucket in a different region, reducing latency by enabling access to data from the nearest region, such as region B in this case." S3 Batch, S3 Versioning, and Same-Region replication do not address cross-region latency.
NEW QUESTION # 43
(An administrator needs to deploy a NAT gateway in an existing VPC subnet. Which two tasks should this administrator perform during deployment? Choose 2 answers.)
- A. Configure the route table associated with the subnet
- B. Assign a private IP address to the NAT gateway
- C. Assign an elastic IP address to the NAT gateway
- D. Configure the access control list associated with the subnet
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
To deploy a NAT gateway in an existing VPC subnet, the administrator must assign an elastic IP address to the NAT gateway for public internet access and configure the route table associated with the subnet to route traffic through the NAT gateway. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, NAT Gateway) states, "Deployment of a NAT gateway requires an elastic IP address for outbound internet connectivity and a route table update to direct private subnet traffic to the NAT gateway (e.g., 0.0.0.0/0 via NAT)." Private IP assignment and ACL configuration are not required steps.
NEW QUESTION # 44
(A company configures the CloudFront caching TTL to the following settings: Min: 0, Max: 172800. An administrator updates the Cache-Control setting to 432000. However, objects are only cached for 48 hours.
What is required to ensure objects are cached for up to 120 hours?)
- A. Configure the Min setting for 432000
- B. Configure the Cache-Control setting for 172800
- C. Configure the Max setting for 432000
- D. Configure the expiration setting for 172800
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
In Amazon CloudFront, the caching TTL is controlled by the minimum and maximum TTL settings, with the maximum TTL (in seconds) capping the cache duration. The current Max TTL is 172800 seconds (48 hours), and the Cache-Control setting of 432000 seconds (120 hours) is ignored because it exceeds the Max TTL. To cache objects for up to 120 hours, the Max setting must be configured to 432000 seconds. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.4, CloudFront Caching) states, "The maximum TTL in CloudFront settings (e.g., 172800 seconds) overrides any higher Cache-Control value; to allow 120 hours (432000 seconds), the Max TTL must be set accordingly." Adjusting Min, expiration, or Cache-Control alone does not resolve this.
NEW QUESTION # 45
(Which performance optimization method must be used when uploading files larger than 5 GB to S3?)
- A. Intelligent-Tiering
- B. Multipart uploads
- C. Transfer Acceleration
- D. Glacier Select
Answer: B
Explanation:
Multipart uploads must be used when uploading files larger than 5 GB to Amazon S3, as this method splits the file into smaller parts for parallel upload, improving reliability and performance. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 2.1, S3 Uploads) states, "For files exceeding 5 GB, multipart upload is required in S3, allowing the file to be divided into parts (minimum 5 MB each) for concurrent uploads, ensuring efficient and resumable transfers." Glacier Select, Transfer Acceleration, and Intelligent-Tiering are not designed for this upload optimization.
NEW QUESTION # 46
(Which service enables a company to enforce and manage governance rules across multiple AWS accounts?)
- A. Control Tower
- B. Security Hub
- C. GuardDuty
- D. Systems Manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
AWS Control Tower enables a company to enforce and manage governance rules across multiple AWS accounts by setting up a landing zone with preconfigured policies for security, compliance, and operations. It simplifies multi-account management. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section
6.5, Control Tower) states, "Control Tower provides a centralized solution to establish and enforce governance rules across multiple accounts, using guardrails and a landing zone to ensure compliance with organizational policies." Security Hub, GuardDuty, and Systems Manager do not offer this multi-account governance capability.
NEW QUESTION # 47
(Where does Patch Manager send compliance reports?)
- A. Elastic Block Store (EBS)
- B. Route 53
- C. OpsWorks
- D. Simple Storage Service (S3)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Patch Manager in AWS Systems Manager sends compliance reports to an Amazon S3 bucket, where they are stored for auditing and analysis. This allows administrators to track patch compliance status across EC2 instances and on-premises servers. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.2, Patch Manager) states, "Patch Manager compliance reports are delivered to an S3 bucket configured as a target, providing a centralized location for reviewing patch status and compliance data." OpsWorks, EBS, and Route 53 are not used for storing these reports.
NEW QUESTION # 48
(Which service should be used to horizontally scale Amazon EC2 instances?)
- A. Elastic Load Balancing
- B. Elastic Beanstalk
- C. Elastic IPs
- D. Elastic network interface
Answer: A
Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) should be used to horizontally scale Amazon EC2 instances by distributing incoming traffic across multiple instances, improving availability and fault tolerance. ELB works in conjunction with Auto Scaling groups to add or remove instances based on demand. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, Elastic Load Balancing) notes, "Elastic Load Balancing distributes traffic across EC2 instances, enabling horizontal scaling as part of an Auto Scaling group to handle increased load efficiently." Elastic IPs, elastic network interfaces, and Elastic Beanstalk do not provide this scaling functionality.
NEW QUESTION # 49
(An AWS SysOps administrator needs to configure Amazon Route 53 to load balance customer requests across multiple identically configured websites. The load balancing method must ensure that the customer requests are directed to the website that offers the shortest round-trip time. Which routing policy should be used?)
- A. Latency
- B. Geoproximity
- C. Geolocation
- D. Weighted
Answer: A
Explanation:
The latency routing policy in Amazon Route 53 should be used to direct customer requests to the website with the shortest round-trip time (RTT). This policy routes traffic to the AWS region with the lowest latency based on the user's location, optimizing performance. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.1, Route 53 Routing Policies) states, "The latency-based routing policy in Route 53 measures RTT to direct users to the region with the lowest latency, improving user experience across multiple websites." Geolocation, geoproximity, and weighted policies do not prioritize RTT in this manner.
NEW QUESTION # 50
(An administrator plans to deploy a database to AWS that supports the following: multiple Availability Zones, a standby database instance that provides failover support, a database instance that allows only read-only connections. Which two database solutions should the administrator use? Choose 2 answers.)
- A. Amazon RDS Multi-AZ DB cluster
- B. Amazon RDS Multi-AZ DB instance
- C. Amazon Aurora DB cluster with multi-master replication
- D. Amazon Aurora DB instance with Aurora Replica
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
To meet the requirements, the administrator should use an Amazon RDS Multi-AZ DB instance for multiple Availability Zones and failover support, and an Amazon Aurora DB instance with Aurora Replica for a read- only connection. The RDS Multi-AZ configuration automatically provisions a standby instance in a different AZ for failover, while Aurora Replicas provide read-only instances for scaling read traffic. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 7.1, RDS and Aurora) states, "RDS Multi-AZ deploys a standby instance across AZs for failover, and Aurora Replicas are read-only instances that enhance performance by offloading read traffic from the primary instance." Options A and D are incorrect as multi- master replication and Multi-AZ clusters do not align with the read-only requirement.
NEW QUESTION # 51
(Which type of support plan provides a technical account manager and full use of Trusted Advisor?)
- A. Standard
- B. Business
- C. Enterprise
- D. Developer
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Enterprise support plan provides a technical account manager (TAM) and full use of Trusted Advisor, offering proactive guidance and comprehensive access to all checks. This plan is designed for large-scale, mission-critical workloads. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.4, AWS Support Plans) states, "The Enterprise support plan includes a dedicated Technical Account Manager and full Trusted Advisor access, providing 24/7 support and proactive optimization recommendations." Developer, Standard, and Business plans offer limited or no TAM support and partial Trusted Advisor access.
NEW QUESTION # 52
(What is used to change stacks across multiple accounts and Regions in a single operation?)
- A. StackSets
- B. Stack policies
- C. StackInstance
- D. Nested stacks
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
StackSets are used to change stacks across multiple AWS accounts and regions in a single operation, enabling centralized management of infrastructure deployments. StackSets allow administrators to create, update, or delete stacks consistently across specified accounts and regions. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.4, StackSets) states, "StackSets provide the capability to manage and update stacks across multiple accounts and regions with a single operation, streamlining multi-region deployments." StackInstance, nested stacks, and stack policies do not support this multi-account, multi-region functionality.
NEW QUESTION # 53
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