New 2026 Realistic Free Symantec 250-614 Exam Dump Questions & Answer [Q35-Q54]

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New 2026 Realistic Free Symantec 250-614 Exam Dump Questions and Answer

250-614 Practice Test Engine: Try These 132 Exam Questions

NEW QUESTION # 35
What is the primary goal of Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR)?

  • A. Replace endpoint prevention controls
  • B. Detect, investigate, and respond to endpoint threats
  • C. Manage device enrollment

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 36
Which statement best summarizes SES Complete security controls?

  • A. They focus exclusively on detection
  • B. They rely only on signatures
  • C. They provide layered protection across attack stages
  • D. They eliminate the need for administrators

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 37
A ransomware alert is detected on a single endpoint. What is the most immediate action to limit spread?

  • A. Update content definitions
  • B. Reassign the device group
  • C. Isolate the endpoint
  • D. Generate a compliance report

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 38
Which SES Policy protects against port scan detections?

  • A. IPS
  • B. Firewall
  • C. Device Control
  • D. Exploit Mitigation

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 39
Why is consistent policy assignment important across device groups?

  • A. To reduce cloud storage usage
  • B. To limit endpoint telemetry
  • C. To ensure uniform security posture
  • D. To control alert visibility

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 40
What happens when a policy version is updated?

  • A. Endpoints stop reporting telemetry
  • B. Old policies are immediately deleted
  • C. Device groups are reset
  • D. Endpoints receive the new policy after synchronization

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 41
A threat attempts to disable endpoint protection services. Which SES Complete capability helps detect this behavior?

  • A. Behavior monitoring
  • B. Policy versioning
  • C. Content updates
  • D. Device grouping

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 42
Which benefits are provided by Application Control?
(Select all that apply)

  • A. Automated agent enrollment
  • B. Mitigation of ransomware threats
  • C. Reduced risk of unauthorized software execution

Answer: B,C


NEW QUESTION # 43
Which indicator is most likely to trigger an EDR alert?

  • A. Regular OS updates
  • B. Policy synchronization
  • C. User password changes
  • D. Suspicious process execution

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 44
What is the recommended first step for an administrator to perform when beginning a discover and deploy campaign?

  • A. Disable the Windows firewall
  • B. Configure the registry
  • C. Configure the SES policies and Groups
  • D. Install the first SES agent in the subnet

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 45
What is the purpose of Custom Application Behavior rules?

  • A. Automatically deploy endpoint agents
  • B. Replace Adaptive Protection
  • C. Define acceptable behaviors for specific applications
  • D. Manage alert severity

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 46
An organization wants to block unauthorized scripting tools without impacting approved software. Which control is most suitable?

  • A. Which outcome is expected after detecting an AD-based threat?
  • B. Immediate endpoint agent removal
  • C. Automatic policy deletion
  • D. Investigation and remediation of identity risks

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 47
Why is context important during EDR investigations?

  • A. It automates remediation
  • B. It helps distinguish benign from malicious activity
  • C. It limits alert visibility
  • D. It reduces storage needs

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 48
Why is alert configuration important in ICDm?

  • A. To reduce endpoint storage usage
  • B. To control policy inheritance
  • C. To enable device enrollment
  • D. To ensure timely notification of significant threats

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 49
Why is visibility into AD authentication activity critical?
Response:

  • A. It helps detect compromised accounts early
  • B. It increases reporting complexity
  • C. It replaces endpoint telemetry
  • D. It reduces system performance

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 50
Which layer of protection focuses on stopping threats before execution?

  • A. Prevention
  • B. Detection
  • C. Investigation
  • D. Response

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 51
Which statement best summarizes Threat Defense for Active Directory in SES Complete?

  • A. It protects identities and detects AD-based threats
  • B. It focuses solely on endpoint malware
  • C. It replaces ICDm functionality
  • D. It manages endpoint device groups

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 52
What is the primary objective of EDR threat response?

  • A. Contain and remediate threats
  • B. Generate compliance reports
  • C. Replace endpoint agents
  • D. Increase alert volume

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 53
Which environments are supported by Symantec Endpoint Security Complete deployments?
(Select all that apply)

  • A. Hybrid cloud and on-premises environments
  • B. Fully cloud-based environments
  • C. Traditional on-premises environments
  • D. Air-gapped environments only

Answer: A,B,C


NEW QUESTION # 54
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