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SK0-005 Braindumps Real Exam Updated on Jul 18, 2023 with 213 Questions
Learn about the Need for CompTIA SK0-005 Certification Exam
CompTIA SK0-005 is a popular certification exam to gauge your expertise in Server+ that provides you with the best of the opportunities to excel in this field. This CompTIA SK0-005 Certification Exam is offered by CompTIA and hence, it is a highly reputed and sought after certificate for Information technology professionals around the globe.
CompTIA being one of the top IT certifications, it can be a hard job to clear it at first attempt. You need complete knowledge on Server+ before attempting CompTIA SK0-005 Certification Exam. Whilst there are many books available in the market, but they do not provide everything that you need to know about Server+.
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CompTIA SK0-005 certification exam, also known as the CompTIA Server+ certification exam, is designed to validate the knowledge and skills of IT professionals in server hardware and software technologies. SK0-005 exam covers a broad range of topics, including server installation, configuration, maintenance, troubleshooting, and security. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification is ideal for IT professionals who work with servers in small, medium, or large organizations.
To take the CompTIA SK0-005 exam, candidates must have a minimum of 18 months of experience in server administration. This requirement ensures that only experienced professionals who have practical knowledge of server systems take the exam. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification is ideal for IT professionals who want to advance their careers in server administration and become experts in managing server systems.
NEW QUESTION # 116
A technician is troubleshooting a server issue. Which of the following should the technician do to ensure the solution can be duplicated in the future?
- A. Notify the impacted users before implementing any changes
- B. Determine if there is a common element or symptom
- C. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes throughout the process
- D. Verify system functionality and implement preventive measures
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 117
A snapshot is a feature that can be used in hypervisors to:
- A. perform a backup restore.
- B. roll back firmware updates.
- C. roll back application drivers.
- D. restore to a previous version.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Hypervisor-based snapshots provide a way to take an image copy of a virtual machine (VM), either to access and restore individual files, provide a rollback point to restore the VM, or to clone the VM to another virtual machine.
Reference: https://www.computerweekly.com/feature/Snapshots-Hypervisor-vs-Array
NEW QUESTION # 118
A server administrator wants to run a performance monitor for optimal system utilization. Which of the following metrics can the administrator use for monitoring? (Choose two.)
- A. Services
- B. CPU
- C. Heartbeat
- D. Page file
- E. Application
- F. Memory
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
Memory and CPU are two metrics that can be used for monitoring system utilization. Memory refers to the amount of RAM that is available and used by the system and its processes. CPU refers to the percentage of processor time that is consumed by the system and its processes. Both memory and CPU can affect the performance and responsiveness of the system and its applications. Monitoring memory and CPU can help identify bottlenecks, resource contention, memory leaks, high load, etc.
NEW QUESTION # 119
A technician has several possible solutions to a reported server issue. Which of the following BEST represents how the technician should proceed with troubleshooting?
- A. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes throughout the process.
- B. Perform a root cause analysis.
- C. Determine whether there is a common element in the symptoms causing multiple problems.
- D. Make one change at a time and test.
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is the best way to proceed with troubleshooting when the technician has several possible solutions to a reported server issue. Making one change at a time and testing allows the technician to isolate the cause and effect of each solution and determine which one works best. It also helps to avoid introducing new problems or complicating existing ones by making multiple changes at once. Determining whether there is a common element in the symptoms causing multiple problems is a good step to perform before identifying possible solutions, but not after. Performing a root cause analysis is a good step to perform after resolving the issue, but not during. Documenting the findings, actions, and outcomes throughout the process is a good practice to follow at every step of troubleshooting, but not a specific way to proceed with testing possible solutions. Reference: https://www.howtogeek.com/174288/how-to-tell-if-your-computer-is-overheating-and-what-to-do-about-it/ https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/
NEW QUESTION # 120
A company's IDS has identified outbound traffic from one of the web servers coming over port
389 to an outside address. This server only hosts websites. The company's SOC administrator has asked a technician to harden this server. Which of the following would be the BEST way to complete this request?
- A. Move traffic from port 389 to port 443
- B. Disable port 389 on the server
- C. Move traffic from port 389 to port 637
- D. Enable port 389 for web traffic
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is solely a web server so should be ports for HTTPS. There should not be any traffic leaving the server on 389 externally and its LDAP traffic so definitely a concern. Port 389 can be disabled. Not to mention LDAPS would be 636 not 637.
http://ports.my-addr.com/tcp_port-udp_port-application-and-description.php?port=637
NEW QUESTION # 121
A large number of connections to port 80 is discovered while reviewing the log files on a server. The server is not functioning as a web server. Which of the following represent the BEST immediate actions to prevent unauthorized server access? (Choose two.)
- A. Run a checksum tool against all the files on the server
- B. Audit all group privileges and permissions
- C. Install a NIDS on the server to prevent network intrusions
- D. Enable port forwarding on port 80
- E. Initialize a port scan on the server to identify open ports
- F. Stop all unneeded services and block the ports on the firewall
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
The best immediate actions to prevent unauthorized server access are to stop all unneeded services and block the ports on the firewall. Stopping unneeded services reduces the attack surface of the server by eliminating potential entry points for attackers. For example, if the server is not functioning as a web server, there is no need to run a web service on port 80. Blocking ports on the firewall prevents unauthorized network traffic from reaching the server. For example, if port 80 is not needed for any legitimate purpose, it can be blocked on the firewall to deny any connection attempts on that port.
NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following can be BEST described as the amount of time a company can afford to be down during recovery from an outage?
- A. SLA
- B. MTBF
- C. MTTR
- D. RTO
Answer: D
Explanation:
https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/recovery-time-objective-RTO
NEW QUESTION # 123
A user reports that a server is not accessible. A technician sees the following message on the server: PXE server not found. Which of the following should the technician attempt FIRST to resolve the issue?
- A. Eject the disk in the CD-ROM and reboot the server.
- B. Ensure the network cable is properly connected and reboot the server.
- C. Power down the server and reseat the PCI cards.
- D. Enter the BIOS and correct the boot sequence on the server.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 124
A security analyst suspects a remote server is running vulnerable network applications. The analyst does not have administrative credentials for the server. Which of the following would MOST likely help the analyst determine if the applications are running?
- A. A sniffer
- B. User account control
- C. A port scanner
- D. Anti-malware
Answer: C
Explanation:
A port scanner is the tool that would most likely help the analyst determine if the applications are running on a remote server. A port scanner is a software tool that scans a network device for open ports. Ports are logical endpoints for network communication that are associated with specific applications or services. By scanning the ports on a remote server, the analyst can identify what applications or services are running on that server and what protocols they are using. A port scanner can also help detect potential vulnerabilities or misconfigurations on a server.
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which of the following open ports should be closed to secure the server properly? (Choose two.)
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
- F. 5
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The administrator should close ports 21 and 23 to secure the server properly. Port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol), which is an unsecure protocol that allows file transfer between a client and a server over a network connection. FTP does not encrypt the data or the credentials that are transmitted, making them vulnerable to interception or modification by attackers. Port 23 is used for Telnet, which is an unsecure protocol that allows remote login and command execution over a network connection using a CLI. Telnet does not encrypt the data or the credentials that are transmitted, making them vulnerable to interception or modification by attackers.
Reference:
https://www.csoonline.com/article/3191531/securing-risky-network-ports.html
NEW QUESTION # 126
Users at a company work with highly sensitive dat
a. The security department implemented an administrative and technical control to enforce least-privilege access assigned to files. However, the security department has discovered unauthorized data exfiltration. Which of the following is the BEST way to protect the data from leaking?
- A. Utilize privacy screens.
- B. Enforce the lock-screen feature.
- C. Implement disk quotas.
- D. Install a DLP solution.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Components of a Data Loss Solution
NEW QUESTION # 127
An administrator discovers a Bash script file has the following permissions set in octal notation;
777
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate command to ensure only the root user can modify and execute the script?
- A. chmod u+wx
- B. chmod u=rwx
- C. chmod go-rw>:
- D. chmod g-rwx
Answer: C
Explanation:
chmod is a command-line tool that changes the permissions of files and directories in Linux and Unix systems. chmod go-rwx means to remove read, write, and execute permissions for group and other users from a file or directory. This can ensure only the root user can modify and execute the script, since root user has full access to all files and directories regardless of their permissions. Reference: https://linux.die.net/man/1/chmod
NEW QUESTION # 128
A server administrator has configured a web server. Which of the following does the administrator need to install to make the website trusted?
- A. SSL
- B. PKI
- C. DNS
- D. LDAP
Answer: A
Explanation:
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is the security protocol used on the web when you fetch a page whose address begins with https:. TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a newer version of the protocol.
NEW QUESTION # 129
A technician has been asked to check on a SAN. Upon arrival, the technician notices the red LED indicator shows a disk has failed. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT, given the disk is hot swappable?
- A. Shut down the SAN
- B. Replace the disk
- C. Stop all connections to the volume
- D. Stop sharing the volume
Answer: B
Explanation:
The next thing that the technician should do, given the disk is hot swappable, is to replace the disk. A hot swappable disk is a disk that can be removed and replaced without shutting down the system or affecting its operation. A hot swappable disk is typically used in a storage array that has RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) configuration that provides fault tolerance and redundancy. If a disk fails in a RAID array, it can be replaced by a new disk without interrupting the service or losing any data. The new disk will automatically rebuild itself using the data from the other disks in the array.
NEW QUESTION # 130
A company is running an application on a file server. A security scan reports the application has a known vulnerability. Which of the following would be the company's BEST course of action?
- A. Install antivirus software
- B. Patch the server OS
- C. Upgrade the application package
- D. Tighten the rules on the firewall
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/computer-science/vulnerability-scanner
NEW QUESTION # 131
A server administrator added a new drive to a server. However, the drive is not showing up as available. Which of the following does the administrator need to do to make the drive available?
- A. Set the compression.
- B. Configure the drive as dynamic.
- C. Partition the drive.
- D. Create a new disk quota.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To make a new drive available on a server, the administrator needs to partition the drive first. Partitioning is a process that divides the drive into one or more logical sections that can be formatted and assigned drive letters or mount points. Partitioning can be done using tools such as Disk Management on Windows or fdisk on Linux. Creating a new disk quota would not help, as disk quotas are used to limit the amount of disk space that users or groups can use on a partition. Configuring the drive as dynamic would not help either, as dynamic disks are used to create volumes that span multiple disks or use RAID features. Setting the compression would not help, as compression is used to reduce the size of files on a partition. Reference: https://www.howtogeek.com/school/using-windows-admin-tools-like-a-pro/lesson2/ https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/17001/how-to-format-a-usb-drive-in-ubuntu-using-gparted/
NEW QUESTION # 132
A technician runs top on a dual-core server and notes the following conditions:
top -- 14:32:27, 364 days, 14 users load average 60.5 12.4 13.6
Which of the following actions should the administrator take?
- A. Wait for the load average to come back down on its own
- B. Request that users log off the server
- C. Identify the runaway process or processes
- D. Schedule a mandatory reboot of the server
Answer: C
Explanation:
The administrator should identify the runaway process or processes that are causing high load average on the server. Load average is a metric that indicates how many processes are either running on or waiting for the CPU at any given time. A high load average means that there are more processes than available CPU cores, resulting in poor performance and slow response time. A runaway process is a process that consumes excessive CPU resources without terminating or releasing them. A runaway process can be caused by various factors, such as programming errors, infinite loops, memory leaks, etc. To identify a runaway process, the administrator can use tools such as top, ps, or htop to monitor CPU usage and process status. To stop a runaway process, the administrator can use commands such as kill, pkill, or killall to send signals to terminate it.
NEW QUESTION # 133
A recent power Outage caused email services to go down. A sever administrator also received alerts from the datacenter's UPS.
After some investigation, the server administrator learned that each POU was rated at a maximum Of 12A.
INSTRUCTIONS
Ensure power redundancy is implemented throughout each rack and UPS alarms are resolved.
Ensure the maximum potential PDU consumption does not exceed 80% or 9.6A).
a). PDU selections must be changed using the pencil icon.
b). VM Hosts 1 and 2 and Mail Relay can be moved between racks.
c). Certain devices contain additional details
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 134
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